Trade wars and morals
Dec 22nd 2011, 15:03 by M.S.
LET'S say you think enslaving children is bad, and you decide that foreign companies that use forced child-labour should be barred from marketing their wares in the United States. Should that be allowed, under international trade laws? What if the company in question is breaking no laws in the country where it uses such labour? Isn't that country being unfairly attacked? Who is the United States Congress to decide what kinds of labour should or should not be legal in another country? Would that country not have the right to retaliate by barring imports of some American products?